[Openswan Users] routing question

John A. Sullivan III jsullivan at opensourcedevel.com
Wed Jan 18 16:50:51 CET 2006

On Wed, 2006-01-18 at 22:29 +0100, Andreas Lüdtke wrote:
> I have a working vpn connection between let's say (my Openswan router) and
> (company gateway). The company gateway is handling routes to other
> destinations (also via vpn) i.e.
> My problem is now that I want to reach via the company gateway from
> I tried to set a route to via the "route" command. Obviously I must
> have done something wrong with the route command because it's not working.
> ipsec eroute gives me:
> 3		->	=> tun0x1002 at
> Now my question: is this the right way to achieve this or do I need to enter this route
> via ipsec eroute or ipsec.conf? I would like see an additional route to when I
> run ipsec eroute...
If I understand you correctly, then you either need to add another
connection definition for a tunnel between and
or you need to change the subnet mask in the existing definition to 23
bits, i.e., a tunnel between and  Of course,
the mask must agree on both sides of the tunnel.  Hope this helps - John
John A. Sullivan III
Open Source Development Corporation
+1 207-985-7880
jsullivan at opensourcedevel.com

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